31. Which one among the following correctly stands for SSL encryption with regard to banking websites?
(a) Secure Socket Layer encryption
(b) Superior Safety Level encryption
(c) Server to Server Linked encryption
(d) Safety Server Level encryption
Answer: a
32. Which of the following statements with regard to the solid state drive (SSD) is/are correct?
1. Spinning speed of SSD is zero.
2. SSD consumes more energy compared to hard disk drive (HDD).
3. SSD could be used as virtual memory when RAM is insufficient.
4. SSD can replace the processor.
Select the answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 2 and 4
Answer: b
a Solid-State Drive (SSD), by design, has a spinning speed of zero.
an SSD can be used as virtual memory (also called a paging file) to supplement insufficient RAM, which allows programs to continue functioning. However, while this is faster than using a traditional hard disk drive (HDD), it is still significantly slower than actual RAM, so performance will be noticeably worse when relying on the SSD as virtual memory.
33. Which one among the following could be a permanent memory of a computer?
(a) Hard Disk
(b) CPU
(c) RAM
(d) Motherboard
Answer: a
34. Which one among the following is the primary environmental concern associated with permafrost thawing in the Arctic?
(a) Displacement of the indigenous communities
(b) Release of Methane and Carbon dioxide
(c) Spread of invasive species
(d) Increase of UV radiation
Answer: b
35. Which one among the following determines the Hardness index of fresh water?
(a) Total concentration of the Ca²⁺ and Mg²⁺ ions in the fresh water
(b) Difference of the pH value of the fresh water with respect to Sulphuric acid
(c) The pH value of fresh water measured at room temperature and at one atmospheric pressure
(d) The molar ratio of D₂O to H₂O in fresh water
Answer: a
36. Which one of the following is not a currently existing Scheme under the Employees’ Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952?
(a) Employees’ Provident Fund Scheme, 1952
(b) Employees’ Deposit-Linked Insurance Scheme, 1976
(c) Employees’ Pension Scheme, 1995
(d) Employees’ Family Pension Scheme, 1971
Answer: d
37. The Employees’ Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952, does not apply to which one of the following establishments registered under the Co-operative Societies Act, 1912?
(a) Establishments employing fewer than 50 persons and operating without the aid of power.
(b) Establishments employing fewer than 70 persons and operating with the aid of power.
(c) Establishments employing more than 50 persons and operating without the aid of power.
(d) Establishments employing fewer than 20 persons or operating without the aid of power.
Answer: d
38. Mr. X earns wages of ₹ 20,000 per month. What will be the contributions to the ESI Scheme under the Employees’ State Insurance Act, 1948?
(a) Employer’s contribution ₹350; Employees’ contribution ₹950
(b) Employer’s contribution ₹650; Employees’ contribution ₹150
(c) Employer’s contribution ₹950; Employees’ contribution ₹350
(d) Employer’s contribution ₹150; Employees’ contribution ₹650
Answer: c
39. Which one of the following is not a benefit provided to an employee under the Employees’ State Insurance Act, 1948?
(a) Sickness benefit
(b) Maternity benefit
(c) Disablement benefit
(d) Health benefit
Answer: d
40. Consider the following statements in reference to the Payment of Wages Act, 1936:
1. Wages may be paid in current coins.
2. Wage period can be fixed for weekly payment.
3. Wages are to be paid before the expiry of the seventh day after the last day of the wage period in establishments employing more than 1000 persons.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: a
41. Which of the following deductions from wages can be made under the Payment of Wages Act, 1936?
1. Deductions for amenities and services supplied by the employer
2. Deductions for recovery of advances
3. Deductions for payments to co-operative societies
Select the answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: d