113. The SMILE Scheme is meant for the rehabilitation of:
- Transgender persons
- Persons engaged in the act of Begging
Select the answer using the codes given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2 Explanation: The Support for Marginalized Individuals for Livelihood and Enterprise (SMILE) scheme, launched by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment, includes two sub-schemes specifically aimed at the comprehensive rehabilitation of transgender persons and persons engaged in begging. It provides measures for welfare, medical facilities, counseling, education, skill development, and economic linkages for both groups.
114. Consider the following statements about Global Alliance of National Human Rights Institutions (GANHRI):
- It works in accordance with UN Paris Principles.
- Fully compliant and partially compliant members are accredited as ‘A’ and ‘B’ respectively.
- National Human Rights Commission (NHRC), India has been accredited under ‘A’ in the year 2025.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1,2 and 3 (d) 1 only
Answer: (c) 1, 2 and 3 Explanation: Statement 1 is correct because GANHRI accredits national human rights institutions based on compliance with the UN Paris Principles, which set standards for independence, pluralism, and effectiveness. Statement 2 is correct as ‘A’ status indicates full compliance, while ‘B’ indicates partial compliance. Statement 3 is correct because, following a review in March 2025, the NHRC India retained its ‘A’ status despite a recommendation for downgrade, with the status remaining ‘A’ until at least March 2026 due to a challenge under GANHRI rules.
115. Match List-I with List-II and select the answer using the codes given below the Lists:
| List-I (Provision of the Constitution of India) | List-II (Part of the Constitution of India) |
|---|---|
| A. Provisions related to Parliament | 1. Part-VI |
| B. Legislative powers of the Governor | 2. Part-IX B |
| C. Borrowings by the Government of India | 3. Part-XII |
| D. Cooperative Societies | 4. Part-V |
Codes: (a) A-4 B-3 C-1 D-2 (b) A-2 B-1 C-3 D-4 (c) A-2 B-3 C-1 D-4 (d) A-4 B-1 C-3 D-2
Answer: (d) A-4 B-1 C-3 D-2 Explanation: Provisions related to Parliament are covered under Part V (The Union, Articles 52-151). Legislative powers of the Governor fall under Part VI (The States, Articles 152-237). Borrowings by the Government of India are addressed in Part XII (Finance, Property, Contracts and Suits, Articles 264-300A). Cooperative Societies are dealt with in Part IX B (Articles 243ZH-243ZT).
116. Who among the following is not a member of the GST Council?
(a) Prime Minister of India (b) Union Finance Minister (c) Union Minister of State (Finance) (d) A Minister nominated by each State Government
Answer: (a) Prime Minister of India Explanation: The GST Council, established under Article 279A of the Constitution, is chaired by the Union Finance Minister and includes the Union Minister of State for Finance (or Revenue) and a minister nominated by each state government (usually the finance or taxation minister). The Prime Minister is not a member of the council.
117. Which of the following statements with reference to the RTI Act are correct?
- The Chief Information Commissioner and other Information Commissioners are appointed by the President of India.
- The Chief Information Commissioner is eligible for reappointment.
Select the answer using the codes given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a) 1 only Explanation: Under Section 12(3) of the Right to Information Act, 2005, the Chief Information Commissioner (CIC) and Information Commissioners are appointed by the President of India on the recommendation of a committee headed by the Prime Minister. However, Section 13(6) explicitly states that the CIC or any Information Commissioner shall not be eligible for reappointment, limiting their term to 3 years or until age 65, whichever is earlier.
118. Consider the following statements with reference to the Constitution of India:
- The Parliament can make laws on matters enumerated in the Union List and/or the Concurrent List.
- The Parliament can make law on any subject enumerated in the State List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a) 1 only Explanation: Statement 1 is correct as Parliament has exclusive powers over the Union List (Seventh Schedule) and shared powers with states over the Concurrent List. Statement 2 is incorrect because Parliament cannot generally legislate on State List subjects; it can do so only under specific circumstances, such as during a national emergency (Article 352), with Rajya Sabha resolution (Article 249), or to implement international agreements (Article 253), not on “any” subject at will.
119. Consider the following statements:
- Only the Supreme Court of India is vested with the power to punish for contempt of itself.
- Both the Supreme Court of India and High Courts have advisory jurisdiction.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect because both the Supreme Court (Article 129) and High Courts (Article 215) have the power to punish for contempt of themselves, as confirmed by the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971. Statement 2 is incorrect because only the Supreme Court has advisory jurisdiction under Article 143, where the President can seek its opinion on legal or factual matters; High Courts do not have equivalent advisory powers.
120. Which of the following subject/provisions under the Directive Principles of State Policy under the Constitution of India?
- Uniform Civil Code for all persons living in India
- Provision for early childhood care and education for children up to the age of 14 years
- Promotion of international peace and security
Select the answer using the codes given below: (a) 1,2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 only (d) 3 only
Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 3 Explanation: All three are provisions under the Directive Principles of State Policy (Part IV of the Constitution). Statement 1 refers to Article 44 (Uniform Civil Code). Statement 2 aligns with the original intent of Article 45 before its 2002 amendment (86th Amendment Act), which historically mandated free and compulsory education up to age 14, though now focused on ages 0-6 for early childhood care and education, with ages 6-14 shifted to Fundamental Rights under Article 21A; many references still associate it with DPSP for broader child welfare. Statement 3 refers to Article 51 (promotion of international peace and security).