OSSC LTR Teacher Question Paper Answer Key 2025: After the completion of OSSC LTR preliminary exam (23rd March 2025), we are providing the question paper with answer key check here.
1. Under which list of the Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution is the subject ‘Education’ listed?
a) Union List
b) State List
c) Concurrent List
d) None of the above
Answer: c
Under Schedule VII of the Constitution, the subject ‘Education’ lies under the Concurrent List. The 7th Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with the division of powers between the Union government and the State government.
2. Which among the following is not a fundamental right?
a) Right to Equality
b) Right to Freedom
c) Right to Property
d) Right to Freedom of Religion
Answer: c
3. Which Article of the Indian Constitution abolished untouchability?
a) Article 18
b) Article 17
c) Article 13
d) Article 14
Answer: b
4. Procedure for Amendment of the constitution is described in which article of the Indian constitution?
a) 368
b) 352
c) 360
d) 356
Answer: a
The procedure of amendment in the constitution is laid down in Part XX (Article 368)Â of the Constitution of India. This procedure ensures the sanctity of the Constitution of India and keeps a check on arbitrary power of the Parliament of India.
5. Article 1(1) of the Indian Constitution reads:
a) India, that is Bharat, shall be a Union of States.
b) India, that is Bharat, shall be a federation of States.
c) India, that is Bharat, shall be a Quasi Federation of States.
d) India shall be Union of States
Answer: a
6. Which among the following is listed as a Fundamental Right in the Indian Constitution?
a) Right to Property
b) Right to Food
c) Right to Education
d) Right to Employment
Answer: c
Article 12 to 35 contained in Part III of the Constitution deal with Fundamental Rights. These are: Right to equality, including equality before law, prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth, and equality of opportunity in matters of employment.
Right to Education Act (RTE)Â provided free and compulsory education to children in 2009 and enforced it as a fundamental right under Article 21-A.
7. How many languages are listed in 8th schedule of the Indian Constitution?
a) 20
b) 22
c) 24
d) 26
Answer: b
8. Which of the following banks is the “Central Bank” of our country?
a) State Bank of India
b) Union Bank of India
c) Reserve Bank of India
d) Central Bank of India
Answer: c
9. What is the full form of MSME?
a) Medium, Small and Micro Enterprises
b) Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises
c) Micro, Scale and Medium Enterprises
d) Medium, Scale and Micro Enterprises
Answer: b
10. In nominal GDP terms, what is the current rank of Indian Economy in the world?
a) 4th largest
b) 5th largest
c) 6th largest
d) 7th largest
Answer: b
It is the world’s fifth-largest economy by nominal GDP and the third-largest by purchasing power parity (PPP); on a per capita income basis, India ranked 140th by GDP (nominal) and 119th by GDP (PPP).
11. As per Economic Survey 2024-25, nominal GDP of India has reached?
a) 324.11 lakh crore
b) 304.11 lakh crore
c) 344.11 lakh crore
d) 2184.11 lakh crore
Answer: b
12. Globally which industry contributes maximum to greenhouse gas emission?
a) Power & Transport
b) Industrial Combustion
c) Agriculture
13. Which among the following is the mam constituent of Biogas after methane?
a) Carbon dioxide
b) Oxygen
e) Hydrogen
d) Ammonia
Answer: a
The main constituent of biogas after methane is carbon dioxide (COâ‚‚). Biogas is primarily composed of methane (CHâ‚„), which typically makes up 50-75% of its volume, followed by carbon dioxide, which usually accounts for 25-50%. Other components, such as hydrogen sulfide (Hâ‚‚S), nitrogen (Nâ‚‚), hydrogen (Hâ‚‚), and water vapor (Hâ‚‚O), are present in much smaller amounts, each generally contributing less than 5% to the total volume. Among these, carbon dioxide stands out as the second most abundant component after methane.
14. As per National Forest Policy, what should be the ideal percentage of forest cover in India for maintaining ecological balance?
a) 32%
b) 33%
c) 34%
d) 35%
Answer: b
15. As per latest Forest Survey of India report 2023 total forest cover of the country is?
a) 8,27 ,356.95 Sq Km
b) 7,15,342.61 Sq Km
c) 62,156 Sq Km
d) 1,32,156 Sq Km
Answer: b
16. In which year did the Jallianwala Bagh Massacre take place?
a) 1914
b) 1918
c) 1919
d) 1921
Answer: c
The Jallianwala Bagh Massacre took place in 1919. Specifically, it occurred on April 13, 1919, in Amritsar, Punjab, when British troops fired on a large gathering of unarmed Indians, marking a significant moment in Indian history and the struggle for independence.
17. When was the Quit India Movement launched?
a) 8 August, 1942
b) 15 August, 1942
c) 1 August, 1942
d) 26 May, 1942
Answer: a
The Quit India Movement was launched on August 8, 1942. This significant event in Indian history marked a major push for independence from British rule. It was initiated by Mahatma Gandhi and the All India Congress Committee, with Gandhi delivering his famous “Do or Die” speech during a session in Bombay (now Mumbai).
18. Which one of the following was not a precipitating factor for launching of NonÂcooperation Movement?
a) Passage of Rowlatt Act
b) Jallianwala Bagh Massacre
c) Dismemberment of Ottoman Empire
d) Violence at Chauri Chaura Police station
Answer: d
9. The third battle of Panipat between Maratha and Afghan army took place in:
a) 1751
b) 1756
c) 1761
d) 1766
Answer: c
The Sun temple at Konark was constructed in?
a) 10th century AD
b) 11th century AD
c) 14th century AD
d) 13th century AD
Answer: d
21. He/’She attended the First Round Table Conference in London in 1931 and demanded separate Odisha province.
Name him/her:
a) Madhusudan Das
b) Gopabandhu Das
c) Maharaja Krushna Chandra Gajapati Narayan Deo
d) Rama Devi
Answer: c
22. In which year Na’ Anka famine affected Odisha?
a) 1860
b) 1866
e) 1864
d) 1885
Answer: b
23. What was the name of the capital of King Kharavela?
a) Toshali
b) Kalinganagara
c) Katak Nagari
d) Jajpur
Answer: b
24. Which of the following is not a closed sea’?
a) Dead Sea
b) Aral Sea
c) Caspian Sea
d) Black Sea
Answer: d
25. Which forest is known as the largest rain forest of the world?
a) Congo rain forest
b) Indo-Burma forest
c) Amazon rain forest
d) Australian rain forest
Answer: c
The Amazon is the world’s largest and best known tropical rainforest. As measured by primary forest extent, the Amazon rainforest is more than three times larger than that of the Congo Basin, the world’s second largest rainforest.
26. Which state has the highest density Population in India according to 2011 census?
a) Bihar
b) West Bengal
e) Kerala
d) Tamil Nadu
Answer: a
27. Which among the following rivers does not pass through Odisha?
a) Mahanadi
b) Subarnarekha
c) Ganga
d) Rushikulya
Answer: c
28. Malkangiri’s district headquarter is the farthest from state capital Bhubaneswar. Which district headquarters is the second farthest from state capital Bhubaneswar?
a) Nabarangpur
b) Nuapada
c) Koraput
d) Bhawanipatna
29. What is the percentage of Rural Population in Odisha as per latest 2011 Census?
a) 81.3%
b) 83.3%
c) 85.3%
d) 79.3%
Answer: b
30. What is the area of Odisha?
a) 1,55,707 Sq. Km.
b) 1,45,707 Sq. Km.
c) 1,65,707 $9. Km.
d) 1,55,107 Sq. Km.
Answer: a