13. The ‘Eurodrone’ programme, sometimes seen in the news, refers to:
(a) A reusable European heavy-lift space launcher
(b) A remotely-piloted aircraft system
(c) A joint EU satellite navigation system
(d) A hypersonic missile defence shield for NATO
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Context: India has officially joined the Medium Altitude Long Endurance Remotely Piloted Aircraft System (MALE RPAS) or Eurodrone programme as an observer.
Eurodrone is a 4-nation development programme of Germany, France, Italy and Spain, led by the Organisation for Joint Armament Cooperation (OCCAR). Airbus Defence and Space (GER) is the Industrial Prime together with Leonardo (ITA), Dassault Aviation (FRA) and Airbus Defence and Space (SPA) acting as Major Subcontractors (MSC). Germany takes the role of Lead Nation for the programme.
It is a collaborative effort to provide Europe with a versatile, ITAR-free drone capable of intelligence, surveillance, reconnaissance (ISR), and other missions.
India officially joined the Eurodrone program as an observer country in January 2025, following a formal request in August 2024. As an observer, India gains access to technical data, the ability to place orders for the Medium Altitude Long Endurance (MALE) Remotely Piloted Aircraft System (RPAS) and a platform to strengthen defense technology cooperation with European countries, but it will not be involved in the program’s decision-making processes.
Hence, option (b) is the correct answer
14. With reference to the Vice-President of India, consider the following statements:
1. While acting as Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, he cannot vote in the House except in the case of a tie.
2. He can be a member of any Parliamentary Committee.
3. He is not entitled to any vote in a joint sitting of Parliament.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
Answer: (d) 1 and 3 only
Explanation: The Vice-President of India holds a dual position in the constitutional scheme:
• He is the second highest constitutional office after the President.
• He is also the ex officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha (Article 64).
Article 100(1) of the Constitution provides that the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha (Vice-President) has no vote in the first instance.
However, in the event of a tie on any matter, he may exercise a casting vote. This ensures that the Chairman remains impartial while presiding, but can break a deadlock. Hence statement 1 is correct.
By constitutional convention and rules of procedure, the Chairman of Rajya Sabha is not a member of the House in the same sense as elected/nominated members.
As presiding officer, he does not sit in committees as a “member”.
Parliamentary Committees comprise MPs from either or both Houses, but the Vice-President is not allotted to any committee as a member.
Hence statement 2 is not correct.
Article 108 provides that a joint sitting of Parliament is presided over by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
The Vice-President, being Chairman of Rajya Sabha, has no role in joint sittings.
Consequently, he does not exercise any vote—neither a regular vote nor a casting vote—in a joint sitting.
His powers are confined strictly to the Rajya Sabha.
Hence statement 3 is correct.
15. What does the term “Bhargavastra,” sometimes seen in the news, refer to?
(a) An indigenous counter-drone system using micro-missiles designed to neutralise drone swarms.
(b) A new satellite launched to monitor swarm drone movements globally.
(c) A NASA-India joint laser weapon project for space debris removal.
(d) An ISRO mission aiming to deploy small drones for planetary exploration.
Answer: (a)
Explanation: Context: Bhargavastra’, India’s new weapon designed to destroy enemy drones
Bhargavastra is a low-cost, indigenous, multi-layered counter-drone system developed by Solar Defence and Aerospace Limited (SDAL) in India, designed to neutralize drone swarms and single drones using a two-stage process of unguided micro-rockets and guided micro-missiles. Named after a powerful mythological weapon, the system was successfully test-fired in May 2025 and can detect and destroy targets at ranges up to 2.5 km.
‘Bhargavastra’ can detect and destroy small drones from distances up to 2.5 km, functioning through two layers:
• First layer: Employs unguided micro-rockets to eliminate multiple drones simultaneously, with each rocket affecting a 20-meter radius.
• Second layer: Utilizes guided micro-missiles for precise targeting of specific drones.
The system can be equipped with jammers and spoofers to confuse enemy drones, providing an additional layer of protection.
Hence, option (a) is the correct answer
16. With reference to the composition of the National Commission for Minorities (NCM):
1. It is a statutory body created to safeguard the constitutional and legal rights of notified minority communities.
2. All members of the Commission must belong to minority communities.
3. The Commission submits its annual reports to the President of India.
Which of the above statements is/are not correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (c) 2 and 3 only
Explanation: The National Commission for Minorities (NCM):
The National Commission for Minorities (NCM) is a statutory, autonomous body created by the Government of India (National Commission for Minorities Act, 1992) to safeguard the constitutional and legal rights of notified minority communities. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Knowing the composition and the reporting channel of the Commission is important because many questions try to mix up whom may be appointed and where the Commission formally places its findings.
Composition:
The Commission consists of a Chairperson, a Vice-Chairperson, and five members — a seven-member body. The law requires that five members (including the Chairperson) be drawn from among the notified minority communities; that means a majority of members must be minorities, but not all members have to belong to minority communities. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
Members are nominated by the Central Government on the basis of eminence, ability, and integrity, and serve for three years. This factual structure explains why a blanket statement that all members must be from minority communities is incorrect.
Reporting channel — where NCM places its reports
The Commission prepares annual (and special) reports on minority issues and submits them to the Central Government. The Government, in turn, places those reports before both Houses of Parliament, together with a memorandum explaining action taken (or reasons for non-acceptance). Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
When a report concerns a State, a copy is forwarded to the State Government for its action, and the State may place it before its legislature. The Commission does not submit its reports directly to the President; therefore, the statement that it reports to the President is incorrect.
17. In the context of the Indian National Congress, consider the following statements:
1. The Congress restrained itself from issues pertaining to social reforms.
2. The British Committee of the Indian National Congress was announced at the Calcutta Session in 1886.
3. Alfred Webb was the first non-Indian President of the Indian National Congress.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 2 only
(b) 1 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (b) 1 only
Explanation: The foundation of the Indian National Congress in 1885 was not a sudden event or a historical accident. It was the culmination of a process of political awakening that had its beginning within the 1860s and 1870s and took a serious breakthrough within the late 1870s and early 1880s. The year 1885 marked a turning point during this process. The modern intellectuals interested in politics, who no longer saw themselves as spokesmen of narrow group interests, but as representatives of national interest as a national party, saw their efforts bear fruit. To reach out to the followers of all religions and to remove the fears of the minorities, a rule was made at the 1888 session that no resolution was to be passed to which an awesome majority of Hindu or Muslim delegates objected. For the same reason, Congress was not to take up questions of social reform. At its second session, the president of the Congress, Dadabhai Naoroji, laid down this rule and said that the National Congress must confine itself to questions in which the entire nation has direct participation. Hence statement 1 is correct
Hume’s involvement gave rise to a lot of conspiracies relating to the origin of Congress. It is termed as the Safety Valve theory by historians over due course of time while some have completely rejected the theory. This theory originated from William Wedderburn’s biography of Hume published in 1913.
The British Committee of the Indian National Congress was established in Britain by the Indian National Congress in 1889. Its purpose was to raise awareness of Indian issues to the public in Britain, to whom the Government of India was responsible. It followed the work of W.C. Bonnerjee and Dadabhai Naoroji, who raised India-related issues in the British parliament through the support of radical MPs like Charles Bradlaugh. William Wedderburn served as the first chairmanship and William Digby as secretary. The British Committee published the journal India as an organ for the Congress’ views. Hence statement 2 is not correct
George Yule was the first non-Indian President of the Indian National Congress. He presided over the Allahabad session of 1888. Alfred Webb presided over the Madras session of 1894. Hence statement 3 is not correct
18. Consider the following pairs with regard to Ministries and Departments:
Departments Ministries
1. Department of Border Management: Ministry of Defence
2. Legislative Department: Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs
3. Department of Land Resources: Ministry of Panchayati Raj
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) One only
(b) Two only
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: (d) None
Explanation: The Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) is a government ministry responsible for maintaining internal security and domestic policy. The Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) in India has several key departments, each with specific responsibilities for maintaining internal security and managing various aspects of governance. These include: the Department of Border Management, Department of Internal Security, Department of Jammu, Kashmir and Ladakh Affairs, Department of Home, and the Department of Official Language. Hence, pair 1 is not correctly matched.
The Department of Land Resources falls under the Ministry of Rural Development in the Government of India. The Department of Land Resources is responsible for various aspects of land management, including land records modernization, land acquisition, and watershed development. It works to facilitate states in modernizing land record management and establishing a land information system. Hence, pair 3 is not correctly matched.
The Legislative Department is one of the three departments under the Ministry of Law and Justice in India. It is primarily responsible for drafting central government legislation, publishing laws, and overseeing subordinate legislation. The department also handles election laws, electoral reforms, and certain concurrent field legislation. Hence, pair 2 is not correctly matched.
19. Consider the following statements regarding “The Code of Gentoo Law”:
1. It was an attempt by Britishers to codify Indian laws.
2. It came during the tenure of Lord Curzon.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a) 1 only
Explanation: The Code of Gentoo Law:
It was the first initial attempt in British India to prepare ancient Indian laws. Hence statement 1 is correct.
It was about the culture and local laws of various parts of Indian subcontinent. It also explained the Hindu law of inheritance (Manusmriti). The Pandits and the Maulvis were associated with judges to understand the civil law of Hindus and Muslims.
In the early 16th century, Gentoo was a term commonly used to distinguish between the local religious groups in India from the Indian Jews and Muslims.
Till about the 18th century, the native population of India (other than Jews and Muslims) was labelled by the Europeans as Gentoos. That is the reason why the first digest of the Indian legislation drafted by the British in 1776 for the purpose of administering justice and to adjudicate over civil disputes among the people of India belonging to local religious groups was titled as ‘A Code of Gentoo Law’.
The Gentoo Code is a legal code translated from Sanskrit into Persian by Brahmin scholars, and then from Persian into English by Nathaniel Brassey Halhed, a British grammarian working for the East India Company.
It was printed privately by the East India Company in London in 1776 under the title A Code of Gentoo Laws or, Ordinations of the Pundits. Warren Hastings was the Governor-General of Bengal in 1772-1785 whereas; Lord Curzon was a Viceroy of India from 1898 till 1905. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
The translation of Hindu laws were funded and encouraged by Warren Hastings as a method of consolidating company control on the Indian subcontinent.
20. Consider the following Presidential actions:
1. Proclamation of National Emergency under Article 352
2. Dissolution of Lok Sabha under Article 85
3. Proclamation of President’s Rule in a State under Article 356
4. Proclamation of Financial Emergency under Article 360
How many of the above necessarily require subsequent approval by Parliament within a prescribed time limit?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Answer: (c) Only three
Explanation: The Constitution of India provides the President with various powers to issue proclamations and executive orders, especially in relation to emergencies, dissolution of legislatures, and governance of the States.
The President may declare a National Emergency if he is satisfied that the security of India or any part thereof is threatened by war, external aggression, or armed rebellion.
Parliamentary approval:
The proclamation must be approved by both Houses of Parliament within 1 month from the date of its issue.
If not approved, it ceases to operate after 1 month.
Once approved, it remains in force for 6 months and can be extended indefinitely with further 6-month approvals.
The President can dissolve the Lok Sabha at any time on the advice of the Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers.
Parliamentary approval:
Dissolution is a final executive action. Once the Lok Sabha is dissolved, fresh elections are held.
There is no provision for subsequent parliamentary approval of dissolution.
This is because the dissolved Lok Sabha ceases to exist and cannot validate or reject the President’s action.
If the President, on receipt of a Governor’s report or otherwise, is satisfied that the governance of a State cannot be carried on according to the Constitution, he may proclaim President’s Rule.
Parliamentary approval:
- Must be approved by both Houses of Parliament within 2 months from the date of issue.
- If not approved, it lapses after 2 months.
- Once approved, it remains in force for 6 months, and can be extended with parliamentary approval up to 3 years (under certain conditions).
- The President can declare a Financial Emergency if he is satisfied that the financial stability or credit of India is threatened.
- Parliamentary approval:
- Must be approved by both Houses of Parliament within 2 months.
- If not approved, it ceases to operate.
- Once approved, it remains in force indefinitely (until revoked).
Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
21. Scientists from the Zoological Survey of India (ZSI) have identified a new species named as Clinidium lalitae. It is a species of:
(a) Snake
(b) Beetles
(c) Wasps
(d) Frogs
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Context: Scientists from the Zoological Survey of India (ZSI) have identified a new species of beetle belonging to the subfamily Rhysodinae.
Clinidium lalitae
Clinidium lalitae discovered in the Talle Valley Wildlife Sanctuary in Arunachal Pradesh, has been named ‘Clinidium lalitae’, in tribute to the late Dr. Lalita Ray Chaudhury, a respected coleopterologist and former scientist at ZSI.
Talle Valley Wildlife Sanctuary is a biodiversity hotspot known for its endemic flora and fauna. The discovery was made by ZSI scientists Devanshu Gupta and Shantanu Kuity during a faunal survey in the region.
The ‘Clinidium lalitae’ beetle is characterised by its unique morphology and belongs to a rare group of ground beetles that inhabit forest floors. According to the research team, these beetles play a significant ecological role in nutrient cycling and soil health. The findings have been published in the international journal ‘Zootaxa’, stressing on the scientific importance of the discovery.
Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.
22. With respect to Secretary of State for India, consider the following statements:
1. The first Secretary of State for India was Lord Edward Stanley.
2. The salaries of the Secretary of State for India was the part of Home charges.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation: The 1858 Act is also known as the Act for the Good Government of India; it abolished the East India Company, and transferred the powers of government, territories and revenues to the British Crown. It created a new office, Secretary of State for India, vested with complete authority and control over Indian administration.
The secretary of state was a member of the British cabinet and was responsible ultimately to the British Parliament. The first Secretary of state was Lord Edward Stanley, who prior to 2 August 1858, served as President of the Board of Control. Hence statement 1 is correct.
Home Charges refer to the expenditure incurred in England by the Secretary of State on behalf of India. The following constituted the Home Charges:
• Incentive to the shareholders of the Company.
• Savings and the salaries of European officials, European traders and Planters remitted to England.
• Pensions to those who retired from civil and military services.
• The salaries of the staff and the Secretary to Home Government, India Office at London. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Expenses on wars fought in India and interests for the loans obtained from the banks for the conduct of wars and for the building of railroads.
23. Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Approval voting system reduces the need for pre-poll alliances and seat-sharing arrangements among parties.
Statement II: Approval voting system is beneficial as it is based on ranked-choice voting.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I.
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
Answer: (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
Explanation: Approval voting system – a voting method that allows voters to choose as many candidates or parties as they want from a list of options.
Approval voting is different from ranked-choice voting, which requires voters to rank their preferences of candidates or parties and eliminates the least preferred options until one option has a majority. Statement II is not correct.
Approval voting can reduce voter fragmentation and encourage ideological politics. It can also prevent post-election defections and horse-trading (political vote trading), as it reduces the need for pre-poll alliances and seat-sharing arrangements among parties. Hence statement I is correct.
The winner is the candidate or party that receives the most approvals or tick marks from the voters.
Approval voting is different from the First Past the Post System method, which forces voters to choose only one option and gives the victory to the option with the most votes, even if it does not have a majority.
Approval voting is a voting method that allows voters to choose as many candidates or parties as they want from a list of options.
This allows voters to express their support for multiple parties without fear of wasting their vote or helping their least preferred option.
Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
24. Which of the following statements is not correct regarding the National Register of Citizens (NRC)?
(a) The first National Register of Citizens was compiled in 1951, after the Census was completed that year.
(b) Anyone who cannot prove that they or their ancestors entered in India before the midnight of March 24, 1971, would be declared a foreigner.
(c) It is a unique exercise in which the onus to prove citizenship lies with the citizens.
(d) Those who are declared foreigners will be deported to Bangladesh under the repatriation treaty and Assam Accord.
Answer: (d)
Explanation: The National Register is meant to be a list of Indian citizens living in Assam.
The first National Register of Citizens was compiled in 1951, after the Census was completed that year.
Since 2015, the state has been in the process of updating the 1951 register. One of the stated aims of the exercise is to identify so-called “illegal immigrants” in the state, many of whom are believed to have poured into Assam after the Bangladesh War of 1971. It is a unique exercise for the onus to prove citizenship lies with the citizens. They have to, through a documentary evidence, show how they have come to be citizens of India.
In 1979, about eight years after the 1971 war, the state saw an anti-foreigners’ agitation. Assamese ethnic nationalists claimed illegal immigrants had entered electoral rolls and were taking away the right of communities defined as indigenous to determine their political future.
In 1985, the anti-foreigners’ agitation led by the All Assam Students’ Union came to an end with the signing of the Assam Accord. Under this accord, those who entered the state between 1966 and 1971 would be deleted from the electoral rolls and lose their voting rights for 10 years, after which their names would be restored to the rolls. Those who entered on or after March 25, 1971, the eve of the Bangladesh War, would be declared foreigners and deported.
The National Register of Citizens now takes its definition of illegal immigrants from the Assam Accord – anyone who cannot prove that they or their ancestors entered the country before the midnight of March 24, 1971, would be declared a foreigner and face deportation.
Those who do not make it to the final list will have to appear before the Foreigners’ Tribunals of Assam. Neither the state nor the Centre has clarified what happens to those who lose their cases in the Foreigners’ Tribunals, whether they will be detained, deported or allowed to stay on without the rights and privileges of citizenship. In the past, those deemed to be foreigners have been transferred to detention centres in the state. While the Indian state has declared them foreigners, there is no repatriation treaty under which they can be deported to Bangladesh.
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
25. Consider the following freedom fighters:
1. Lala Hardayal
2. Satish Chandra Bose
3. Pramathanath Mitter
4. Barindra Kumar Ghosh
5. Ullaskar Dutta
Who of the above were actively associated with the Anushilan Samiti?
(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
Answer: (d) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
Explanation: Anushilan Samiti was established on March 24, 1902 in Kolkata by Barrister Pramathanath Mitra and Satish Chandra Bose, the Anushilan Samiti became a hotbed of rebellion. It was not only an organisation but a war centre, where young people learnt guerrilla warfare, handled arms, and made bombs — all with one goal in mind: expelling the British.
The society aimed to make young Indians strong mentally, physically, and spiritually. It was inspired by Swami Vivekananda’s ideas and Bankim Chandra Chatterjee’s novel Anandamath.
Pramatha Nath Mitter, Sri Aurobindo, and Deshbandhu Chittaranjan Das were the leading members of the Samiti. Barindra Kumar Ghosh, along with Ullaskar Dutta and Hemchandra Kanungo, were prominent figures in the early activities of Anushilan Samiti. Jatindra Nath Mukherjee, known as Bagha Jatin, was the well-known Jugantar group leader of Anushilan Samiti.
However, Lala Hardayal was not primarily associated with the Anushilan Samiti; he was founder and leader of the Ghadar Party.
Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.
26. Indian Statistical Institute (ISI) Act, 1959 falls under which ministry?
[A] Ministry of Home Affairs
[B] Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation
[C] Ministry of Science & Technology
[D] Finance Ministry
Answer: B
More than 1,500 academics protested in Kolkata against the Central government’s plan to repeal the Indian Statistical Institute (ISI) Act, 1959. The Indian Statistical Institute, founded by Professor Prasanta Chandra (P.C.) Mahalanobis on 17 December 1931 in Kolkata, is India’s key centre for statistical research, education, and training. The Act applies to ISI, its governing body, staff, and students, and grants autonomy to support its national role. The Act declared ISI an institution of national importance under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI).