26 Most Important MCQs for UPSC CSE Prelims 2026 GS Paper 1: Practice Questions with Answers and Explanations. Preparing for the UPSC Civil Services Examination (CSE) Prelims 2026? General Studies (GS) Paper 1 is a cornerstone of the exam, testing your knowledge across Indian history, polity, geography, economy, environment, and current affairs. With the exam pattern emphasizing objective MCQs, regular practice is essential to build accuracy, speed, and conceptual clarity.
These 26 carefully selected MCQs, inspired by recent mock tests / IAS Prelims 2026 series, cover high-yield topics that frequently appear in the UPSC Prelims. Each question includes options, the correct answer, and a detailed explanation to help you understand the ‘why’ behind the right choice.
Mastering GS Paper 1 requires consistent revision of NCERTs, standard books like Laxmikant (Polity) and Spectrum (History), and current affairs from newspapers /PIB. Practice 50-100 MCQs daily, analyze mistakes, and focus on elimination techniques. Stay updated with 2025-2026 developments. Good luck—your dream IAS/IPS journey starts with smart prep! For more UPSC resources, check mock tests and previous years’ papers.
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Also, check: UPSC CSE Prelims Previous Years’ Topic Wise GS 1 Solved Paper 2013-2025 | IAS Pre 13 Years Solved Paper PDF
Most Important MCQs for UPSC CSE Prelims 2026 GS Paper 1
1. Consider the following pairs:
Provision of the Constitution Types of Majority required
1. Abolition of Legislative Councils in States: Special Majority
2. Election process of the Vice-President: Effective Majority
3. Amendment of Fundamental Rights: Special Majority of Parliament and Ratification by Half of the States
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: (d) None
Explanation: The Indian Constitution prescribes different kinds of majorities for different provisions. Understanding these distinctions is important because not all constitutional decisions are taken in the same manner. For example, ordinary legislation needs only a simple majority, while amendments to the Constitution demand special procedures.
Types of Majorities (for quick recall)
• Simple Majority: Majority of members present and voting. Used for ordinary laws, Article 3 (reorganisation of states).
Provisions of the Constitution (requiring a Simple Majority)
• Admission or establishment of new States
• Formation of new States and alteration of areas, boundaries, or names of existing States
• Abolition or creation of Legislative Councils in States. Hence, pair 1 is not correctly matched.
• Second Schedule – Emoluments, allowances, and privileges of the President, Governors, Speakers, Judges, etc.
• Quorum in Parliament
• Salaries and allowances of Members of Parliament
• Rules of procedure in Parliament
• Special Majority (Art. 368) : Majority of total membership + two-thirds of members present and voting. Used for most constitutional amendments.
The following provisions of the Constitution can be amended through this method:
• Fundamental Rights. Hence, pair 3 is not correctly matched.
• Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSPs)
• All other provisions which are not specifically covered under the first category (Simple Majority) or the third category (Special Majority with Ratification).
• Special Majority + Ratification by Half the States: Needed for federal provisions like election of President, powers of Union/States, Supreme Court/High Courts, etc.
The following provisions of the Constitution can be amended only through this process:
• Election of the President and the manner of such election
• Extent of the executive power of the Union and the States.
• Supreme Court and High Courts – structure and jurisdiction.
• Distribution of legislative powers between the Union and the States.
• Goods and Services Tax (GST) Council.
• Any of the lists in the Seventh Schedule.
• Representation of States in Parliament.
• Power of Parliament to amend the Constitution and the procedure laid down in Article 368 itself.
• Effective Majority: Majority of the “effective strength” (total strength minus vacancies) and Relevant for procedures like Speaker’s removal.
The election of the Vice-President and the manner of such election is dealt with under Article 66. Since it is about Union Executive provisions, amending it requires a Special Majority of Parliament (Art. 368, 2nd part) — no ratification by States is required. Hence, pair 2 is not correctly matched.
2. In the context of Indian Modern History, Rani Chennamma is known for:
(a) Playing a prominent role in the Revolt of 1857 as a leader from Central India.
(b) Participating in the second round Table Conference.
(c) Leading the Kittur rebellion against the British in 1824, making her one of the earliest female rulers to resist colonial rule.
(d) Supporting the British in their campaigns against Tipu Sultan.
Answer: (c)
Explanation: In the early nineteenth century, the Company pursued an aggressive policy of territorial expansion. Under Lord Hastings (Governor-General from 1813 to 1823), a new policy of “paramountcy” was initiated. Now the Company claimed that its authority was paramount or supreme, hence its power was greater than that of Indian states. In order to protect its interests, it was justified in annexing or threatening to annex any Indian kingdom.
This process, however, did not go unchallenged. For example, when the British tried to annex the small state of Kitoor (in Karnataka today), Rani Chennamma took to arms and led an anti-British resistance movement. Rani Chennamma, the queen of Kittur was one such warrior who led a war against British forces in early part of 19th Century when not many rulers were familiar with the evil designs of the British. She was the first Indian ruler to lead an armed rebellion against the British East India Company. She was outnumbered and arrested, but she is still remembered for leading the revolt against British rule in India. She was arrested in 1824 and died in prison in 1829. Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.
Also, check: UPSC Civil Services (Mains) Examination – Previous 13 Years General Studies Paper-I (2013–2025) | Mains Solved Papers
3. Which one of the following demands was not put forward by the early moderates before the British government?
(a) Military expenditure should be evenly shared by the British government.
(b) Indians should be taken into the army as volunteers.
(c) Simultaneous holding civil service examination both in India and London.
(d) Improve the conditions of labour in the Indian owned factories and the British-owned factories.
Answer: (d)
Explanation: Congress politics during the first twenty years of its history is roughly referred to as moderate politics. The moderate political activity involved constitutional agitation within the confines of law and showed a slow but orderly political progress. Following demands were put forward by the early moderates before the British government:
• They demanded simultaneous civil service examination both in India and London and the raising of the age limit for appearing in such examinations from nineteen to twenty-three. They demanded Indianisation of the services. An Indianised civil service would be more responsive to the Indian needs
• As British Indian army was being used in imperial wars in all parts of the world, particularly in Africa and Asia. These and the Indian frontier wars of the 1890s put a very heavy burden on the Indian finances. The moderates demanded that this military expenditure should be evenly shared by the British government; Indians should be taken into the army as volunteers; and more and more of them should be appointed in higher ranks.
• The other administrative demands of the moderates included the extension of trial by jury, repeal of the arms act, complaint against over-assessment of land revenue and demand for the extension of the Permanent Settlement, demand for the abolition of salt tax
However, early nationalists, especially the Moderates, were indifferent to the labour’s cause. They did not support the Factory Acts of 1881 and 1891. Because they believed that labour legislations would affect the competitive edge enjoyed by the Indian-owned industries hence differentiated between the labour in the Indian owned factories and those in the British-owned factories. Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.
4. The Right to silence is derived from which one of the following Constitutional provisions in India?
(a) Article 19
(b) Article 20
(c) Article 21
(d) Article 22
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Supreme Court said that all accused have a right to silence, and investigators cannot force them to speak up or admit guilt.
The right to silence means that a person cannot be compelled to give evidence against him, and when he remains silent no adverse inference can be drawn against him.
In India, Article 20(3) of the Constitution, which comes under the chapter of Fundamental Rights, confers the right against self-incrimination.
Similarly, Section 161 (2) Section 313 and Section 315 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 also recognize this right to silence.
Article 20(3) says that no person accused of any offence shall be compelled to be a witness against himself.
The characteristics features of these provisions are:
• That the Accused is presumed to be innocent until proven guilty,
• It is the duty of the prosecution to establish guilt, and
• The accused cannot be forced to give a statement against his will.
• Protection is limited only to criminal proceedings.
This right is not available to a person being interrogated under Customs Act, 1962, or Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999, since the person is not “accused of an offence” and isn’t entitled to a lawyer.
Under criminal law jurisprudence, it is considered the duty of the prosecution to prove a person guilty beyond reasonable doubt. Until proven otherwise, the accused remains innocent.
An accused’s decision to remain silent can be construed as a negative inference in certain circumstances but it cannot absolve the prosecution from its duty to prove the guilt of that person beyond reasonable doubts, the court reasoned.
In the USA, the Fifth Amendment relates to the fundamental right against self-incrimination, similar to Article 20(3) of the Indian Constitution. However, American courts have noted that the silence of the accused can be considered only while deciding about the quantum of punishment. The International Covenant and Civil and Political Rights, 1966 to which India is also a party, also recognize right to silence.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
5. Consider the following Judgements:
1. Champakam Dorairajan case
2. Golaknath case
3. Minerva Mills case
How many of the above judgments are related to the conflict between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Conflict between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles:
The tension between Fundamental Rights (Part III) and Directive Principles of State Policy (Part IV) has been a recurring constitutional theme in India. Courts have repeatedly had to decide whether state action intended to promote social welfare (DPSPs) can be permitted when it clashes with an individual’s constitutionally guaranteed freedoms. The three cases listed are landmark decisions that shaped this interplay.
Champakam Dorairajan (1951) — equality vs. community reservations
• What happened: The Madras government issued an order reserving certain public employment posts for particular communities. Petitioners challenged this as violative of the equality provisions in Part III.
• Court’s holding & significance: The Supreme Court held that the order conflicted with the Fundamental Rights (notably equality of opportunity in public employment) and therefore was unconstitutional. The judgment emphasised that Directive Principles cannot override explicit Fundamental Rights. The political response was immediate — Parliament passed the First Amendment (1951) to add Article 15(4), enabling special provisions for weaker sections (thus reconciling DPSP goals with Part III constraints).
• Why it’s relevant: This case is a classic instance of a direct clash between FR and DPSP and shows the constitutional tug between social objectives and individual rights.
Hence, option 1 is correct.
Golaknath v. State of Punjab (1967) — amending power, property rights, and social reform
• What happened: The case arose out of land reform and amendments that curtailed property rights (a Fundamental Right then). The question was whether Parliament could amend Fundamental Rights by constitutional amendment to make room for social and economic reforms (DPSPs).
• Court’s holding & significance: The Supreme Court (by a majority) held that Parliament could not amend Fundamental Rights under its Article 368 power — Fundamental Rights were beyond Parliament’s reach. Practically, this constrained how far the legislature could alter FR to implement DPSPs (for example, land reform measures affecting property rights).
• Why it’s relevant: Although an amendment-power case at core, Golaknath is deeply connected to the FR-DPSP conflict because it dealt with attempts to use constitutional amendments (or laws) to prioritize social policy at the cost of guaranteed rights.
Hence, option 2 is correct.
Minerva Mills (1980) — restoring balance, basic structure, and harmony doctrine
• What happened: Challenges to parts of the 42nd Amendment (1976) reached the Court. The 42nd Amendment had attempted to tilt the constitutional balance decisively in favour of Directive Principles by restricting judicial review and by broadening Parliament’s amending power.
• Court’s holding & significance: The Supreme Court struck down key provisions of the 42nd Amendment, holding that the basic structure (including the harmony between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles) could not be destroyed. The Court reaffirmed that FR and DPSP must be read together — neither can be made wholly subservient to the other. Minerva Mills thus reasserted that while DPSPs are important, they cannot obliterate the core of Fundamental Rights.
• Why it’s relevant: This is a pivotal judgment on the FR-DPSP relationship; it put constitutional limits on parliamentary attempts to subordinate FR to DPSP through amendments.
Hence, option 3 is also correct.
6. Consider the following pairs:
Revolutionary Movement/Conspiracy | Leader/Key Figure
1. Chittagong Armoury Raid: Rash Behari Bose
2. Ghadar Movement: Lala Hardayal
3. Alipore Conspiracy Case: Aurobindo Ghosh
4. Kakori Conspiracy Case: V. D. Savarkar
How many of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Answer: (b) Only two
Explanation: The Chittagong Armoury Raid (1930) was planned and led by Master da Surya Sen and his group of young revolutionaries in Chittagong. Rash Behari Bose had no direct role in the 1930 Chittagong Armoury Raid. Bose was a prominent revolutionary who went to Japan in 1915 and was involved in earlier revolutionary efforts like the Ghadar Mutiny. The Chittagong raid was a distinct event in a later period of the Indian independence movement. Hence, pair 1 is not correctly matched.
The Ghadar Movement (c.1913), formed by expatriate Indians in North America to overthrow British rule, had Lala Hardayal as one of its principal ideologues and organisers. Hence, pair 2 is correctly matched.
The Alipore Conspiracy Case (1908) involved the revolutionary network in Bengal associated with Aurobindo (Aurobindo Ghosh) and his brother Barindra; Aurobindo’s circle was at the centre of the case. Hence, pair 3 is correctly matched.
The Kakori train robbery (1925) was carried out by members of the Hindustan Republican Association and was led by Ram Prasad Bismil (with Ashfaqullah Khan, Rajendra Lahiri, etc.). V. D. Savarkar was a revolutionary thinker linked with India House and other activities but was not a leader in the Kakori conspiracy. Hence, pair 4 is not correctly matched.
7. Which of the following states has introduced for the first time an innovative plan that connects ecosystem services of its forests with the Green GDP?
(a) Madhya Pradesh
(b) Chhattisgarh
(c) Uttarakhand
(d) Sikkim
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Context: Chhattisgarh has introduced an innovative plan that connects ecosystem services of its forests with the Green GDP.
Chhattisgarh is the first Indian state to integrate forest ecosystem services, such as carbon absorption and biodiversity preservation, into its Green Gross Domestic Product (Green GDP) calculation. This initiative, launched in January 2025, aims to formally quantify these crucial natural contributions to formal economic planning, ensuring sustainable growth by valuing ecological services alongside economic development.
The move highlights the direct link between significant environmental contributions of forests like clean air, water conservation, biodiversity and the state’s economic progress.
Forests account for Chhattisgarh’s 44% of land cover, playing a crucial role in mitigating climate change.
Also, forest products like tendu leaves, lac, honey, and medicinal plants contribute significantly to the rural economy.
Hence, option (b) is the correct answer
8. What does the term “Pig-Butchering Scam,” sometimes seen in the news, refer to?
(a) A fraudulent investment scheme where victims are emotionally groomed online
(b) An international cartel involved in illegal livestock trade across borders
(c) A scam that involves criminals impersonating law enforcement officials to intimidate victims into transferring money.
(d) A cyber espionage tool developed to steal data from defence networks
Answer: (a)
Explanation: Context: Pig butchering scam: New cyber fraud targets unemployed youth, students, housewives.
Pig butchering scam
It is also known as a “sha zhu pan” scam, is a type of online investment fraud that involves scammers creating fake online personas to lure victims into fraudulent investment schemes.
The term “pig butchering” comes from the scammers’ practice of “fattening up” their victims by building trust over time before “slaughtering” them and stealing their money.
The government has issued an alert about a new cyber fraud scheme called the ‘pig butchering scam,’ which targets unemployed youth, students, and vulnerable individuals. Victims not only lose money but are also forced into cyber slavery, officials said on Wednesday.
Google Advertisement platform provides a convenient facility for posting targeted advertisements from across the border. This scam, known as ‘Pig Butchering Scam’ or ‘Investment Scam,’ is a global phenomenon and involves large-scale money laundering and even cyber slavery.
Hence, option (a) is the correct answer
9. With reference to the tenure of municipalities under the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992, consider the following statements:
1. Every municipality has a five-year term from its first meeting, unless dissolved earlier.
2. A municipality reconstituted after premature dissolution enjoys a fresh full term of five years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a) 1 only
Explanation: The 74th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 inserted Part IXA (Articles 243P–243ZG) into the Constitution, providing constitutional status to municipalities.
Every municipality has a fixed term of five years, counted from the date of its first meeting, not from the date of election.
This ensures that there is no gap in governance between election and functioning.
A municipality may, however, be dissolved earlier according to law made by the State Legislature.
Hence statement 1 is correct.
If a municipality is dissolved before completing its five-year term, it must be reconstituted through elections within six months. However, the newly elected body does not enjoy a fresh full term of five years.
Instead, it only serves the remaining portion of the original term. This rule ensures continuity and alignment in the municipal cycle across the state.
Hence statement 2 is not correct.
Article 243U further provides an exception: If the remaining term of the dissolved municipality is less than six months, then elections are not required for that short period.
Instead, the state government may administer the area directly or through interim arrangements.
10. With reference to the Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution, consider the following subjects:
1. Census
2. Insurance
3. Forests
4. Marriage and Divorce
How many of the above fall under the Concurrent List?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Answer: (b) Only two
Explanation: The Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution distributes legislative powers between the Union List, State List, and Concurrent List.
- Census Entry 69 of the Union List.
- Conduct of population census is a matter of national importance requiring uniformity.
- Hence, it falls exclusively under Union jurisdiction.
- Insurance Entry 47 of the Union List.
- Insurance regulation has an all-India impact and involves international linkages. Parliament holds exclusive power here.
- Forests Originally under the State List.
- Shifted to the Concurrent List (Entry 17A) by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment, 1976.
Rationale: National integration of forest policy and ecological balance across states.
Marriage and Divorce Covered under Concurrent List (Entry 5).
Matters like marriage, divorce, adoption, succession, etc., involve both national uniformity and local sensitivity. Hence, both Parliament and state legislatures can legislate.
Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
11. Consider the following statements:
1. Totalitarianism refers to a rule by an individual king or queen through inheritance of power.
2. Oligarchy is a system of governance in which power and authority are held by the wealthy class.
3. Anarchy refers to a state of society where there is no centralized government or authority.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: (a) Only one
Explanation: Totalitarianism refers to a form of government characterized by centralized and absolute control over all aspects of public and private life. In a totalitarian system, the ruling party or leader exercises unrestricted power and seeks to dominate and control every aspect of society, including politics, the economy, culture, education, and even personal beliefs. The state exerts extensive control over all aspects of society, including the economy, education, media, and cultural institutions. The government dictates and directs the actions and behavior of individuals and tightly regulates all facets of public and private life. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
Monarchy is ruled by an individual (King or Queen) who has inherited the role and expects to pass it on to their heir.
Oligarchy is a system of governance in which power and authority are held by a small group of individuals or families. These individuals typically come from privileged backgrounds, such as wealthy or influential families, and they wield considerable control over political, economic, and social affairs. In an oligarchy, the ruling elite often use their wealth, social status, or military might to maintain their power and influence.
Plutocracy is a government composed of the wealthy class. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
Anarchy refers to a state of society where there is no centralized government or authority. In an anarchic system, there is an absence of rulers, hierarchies, and institutionalized power structures. The term “anarchy” comes from the Greek word “anarkhia,” which means “without rulers.” Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Despotism is a rule by a single leader; all his or her subjects are considered his or her slaves.
12. Consider the following statements:
1. The Fazl Ali Commission was the first to recognize the ‘One language-one state’ principle.
2. Maharashtra was the first linguistic state to be created.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) both 1 and 2
Explanation: In October 1953, the Government of India was forced to create the first linguistic state, known as Andhra state, by separating the Telugu-speaking areas from the Madras state. This followed a prolonged popular agitation and the death of Potti Sriramulu, a Congressperson of standing, after a 56-day hunger strike for the cause. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
The creation of Andhra state intensified the demand from other regions for the creation of states on a linguistic basis. This forced the Government of India to appoint (in December, 1953) a three-member States Reorganisation Commission under the chairmanship of Fazl Ali to re-examine the whole question. Its other two members were K.M. Panikkar and H.N. Kunzru. It submitted its report in September 1955 and broadly accepted language as the basis of the reorganisation of states. But it rejected the theory of ‘one language-one state’. Its view was that the unity of India should be regarded as the primary consideration in any redrawing of the country’s political units. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.